Quote:
Originally posted by wig@Mar 5 2004, 08:09 AM
From a predictive standpoint, I do not think there is enough participation of groups to provide any usable analysis.
Homicides tend to be individual acts, separate from any mass participation.
I would venture to guess that homocides are more within the realm of chaos and randomness rather than pattern and order.
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Why then, would the US homicide rate be so consistently high compared to Western European nations? Why did homicide rates increase in nearly all Western nations beginning in 1961?
Seems to me there is a large and somewhat orderly component modified by random, chaotic events.